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P74 'SUBELEMENT G1 - COMMISSION'S RULES [4 exam questions - 4 groups] N4 'G1A General control operator frequency privileges; local TG1A01 '[97.301d] RC QWhat are the frequency limits for General class operators in the Q160-meter band? A1800 - 1900 kHz B1900 - 2000 kHz C1800 - 2000 kHz D1825 - 2000 kHz TG1A02 '[97.301d] RA QWhat are the frequency limits for General class operators in the Q75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)? A3525 - 3750 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz B3525 - 3775 kHz and 3875 - 4000 kHz C3525 - 3750 kHz and 3875 - 4000 kHz D3525 - 3775 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz TG1A03 '[97.301d] RD QWhat are the frequency limits for General class operators in the Q40-meter band (ITU Region 2)? A7025 - 7175 kHz and 7200 - 7300 kHz B7025 - 7175 kHz and 7225 - 7300 kHz C7025 - 7150 kHz and 7200 - 7300 kHz D7025 - 7150 kHz and 7225 - 7300 kHz TG1A04 '[97.301d] RA QWhat are the frequency limits for General class operators in the Q30-meter band? A10100 - 10150 kHz B10100 - 10175 kHz C10125 - 10150 kHz D10125 - 10175 kHz TG1A05 '[97.301d] RB QWhat are the frequency limits for General class operators in the Q20-meter band? A14025 - 14100 Khz and 14175 - 14350 kHz B14025 - 14150 kHz and 14225 - 14350 kHz C14025 - 14125 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz D14025 - 14175 kHz and 14250 - 14350 kHz TG1A06 '[97.301d] RD QWhat are the frequency limits for General class operators in the Q15-meter band? A21025 - 21200 kHz and 21275 - 21450 kHz B21025 - 21150 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz C21025 - 21150 kHz and 21275 - 21450 kHz D21025 - 21200 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz TG1A07 '[97.301d] RA QWhat are the frequency limits for General class operators in the Q12-meter band? A24890 - 24990 kHz B24890 - 24975 kHz C24900 - 24990 kHz D24900 - 24975 kHz TG1A08 '[97.301d] RA QWhat are the frequency limits for General class operators in the Q10-meter band? A28000 - 29700 kHz B28025 - 29700 kHz C28100 - 29600 kHz D28125 - 29600 kHz TG1A09 '[97.305c] RA QWhat are the frequency limits within the 160-meter band for phone Qemissions? A1800 - 2000 kHz B1800 - 1900 kHz C1825 - 2000 kHz D1825 - 1900 kHz TG1A10 '[97.305a] RC QWhat are the frequency limits within the 80-meter band in ITU QRegion 2 for CW emissions? A3500 - 3750 kHz B3700 - 3750 kHz C3500 - 4000 kHz D3890 - 4000 kHz TG1A11 '[97.305c] RD QWhat are the frequency limits within the 40-meter band in ITU QRegion 2 for image emissions ? A7225 - 7300 kHz B7000 - 7150 kHz C7100 - 7150 kHz D7150 - 7300 kHz TG1A12 '[97.305c] RC QWhat are the frequency limits within the 30-meter band for RTTY Qemissions? A10125 - 10150 kHz B10125 - 10140 kHz C10100 - 10150 kHz D10100 - 10140 kHz TG1A13 '[97.305c] RB QWhat are the frequency limits within the 20-meter band for image Qemissions? A14025 - 14300 kHz B14150 - 14350 kHz C14025 - 14350 kHz D14150 - 14300 kHz TG1A14 '[97.305c] RC QWhat are the frequency limits within the 15-meter band for image Qemissions? A21250 - 21300 kHz B21150 - 21450 kHz C21200 - 21450 kHz D21100 - 21300 kHz TG1A15 '[97.305c] RC QWhat are the frequency limits within the 12-meter band for phone Qemissions? A24890 - 24990 kHz B24890 - 24930 kHz C24930 - 24990 kHz DPhone emissions are not permitted in this band TG1A16 '[97.305c] RC QWhat are the frequency limits within the 10-meter band for phone Qemissions? A28000 - 28300 kHz B29000 - 29700 kHz C28300 - 29700 kHz D28000 - 29000 kHz TG1A17 '[97.119d] RB QAs a General class control operator at a Novice station, how must Qyou identify your station when transmitting on 7250 kHz? AWith your call sign, followed by the word "controlling" and Athe Novice call sign BWith the Novice call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or Bany suitable word) and your own call sign CWith your call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any Csuitable word) and the Novice call sign DA Novice station should not be operated on 7250 kHz, even Dwith a General control operator TG1A18 '[97.205a] RD QUnder what circumstances may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the Q2-meter signal from a Technician class operator? AUnder no circumstances BOnly if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special BTemporary Authorization allowing such retransmission COnly during an FCC-declared general state of communications Cemergency DOnly if the 10-meter control operator holds at least a DGeneral class license TG1A19 '[97.3a35] RA QWhat kind of amateur station automatically retransmits the Qsignals of other stations? ARepeater station BSpace station CTelecommand station DRelay station TG1A20 '[97.3a21] RB QWhat name is given to a form of interference that seriously Qdegrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication Qservice? AIntentional interference BHarmful interference CAdjacent interference DDisruptive interference TG1A21 '[97.115, 97.117] RC QWhat types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur station Qto a foreign country for a third party? AMessages for which the amateur operator is paid BMessages facilitating the business affairs of any party CMessages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal Ccharacter DNo messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third Dparties 'G1B Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good TG1B01 '[97.15a] RC QUp to what height above the ground may you install an antenna Qstructure without needing FCC approval? A50 feet B100 feet C200 feet D300 feet TG1B02 '[97.101a] RB QIf the FCC Rules DO NOT specifically cover a situation, how must Qyou operate your amateur station? AIn accordance with general licensee operator principles BIn accordance with good engineering and good amateur practice CIn accordance with practices adopted by the Institute of CElectrical and Electronics Engineers DIn accordance with procedures set forth by the International DAmateur Radio Union TG1B03 '[97.203g] RB QWhich type of station may transmit one-way communications? ARepeater station BBeacon station CHF station DVHF station TG1B04 '[97.113c] RA QWhich of the following does NOT need to be true if an amateur Qstation gathers news information for broadcast purposes? AThe information is more quickly transmitted by amateur radio BThe information must involve the immediate safety of life of Bindividuals or the immediate protection of property CThe information must be directly related to the event DThe information cannot be transmitted by other means TG1B05 '[97.113e] RD QUnder what limited circumstances may music be transmitted by an Qamateur station? AWhen it produces no dissonances or spurious emissions BWhen it is used to jam an illegal transmission CWhen it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz DWhen it is an incidental part of a space shuttle Dretransmission TG1B06 '[97.113d] RC QWhen may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit a Qmessage in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning of the Qcommunication? AWhen transmitting above 450 MHz BDuring contests CNever DDuring a declared communications emergency TG1B07 '[97.113d] RB QWhat are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or Qprocedural signals in the amateur service? AThere are no restrictions BThey may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a Bmessage CThey are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a Cmessage to FCC monitoring stations DOnly "10-codes" are permitted TG1B08 '[97.113d] RA QWhen are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way domestic amateur Qcommunications? ANever BDuring contests CDuring nationally declared emergencies DOn frequencies above 2.3 GHz TG1B09 '[97.113d] RA QWhen are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way international Qamateur communications? ANever BDuring contests CDuring internationally declared emergencies DOn frequencies above 2.3 GHz TG1B10 '[97.113d] RD QWhich of the following amateur transmissions is NOT prohibited by Qthe FCC Rules? AThe playing of music BThe use of obscene or indecent words CFalse or deceptive messages or signals DRetransmission of space shuttle communications TG1B11 '[97.113d/e] RC QWhat should you do to keep your station from retransmitting music Qor signals from a non-amateur station? ATurn up the volume of your transceiver BSpeak closer to the microphone to increase your signal Bstrength CTurn down the volume of background audio DAdjust your transceiver noise blanker 'G1C Transmitter power standards; type acceptance of external TG1C01 '[97.313c1] RA QWhat is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use Qon 3690 kHz? A200 watts PEP output B1000 watts PEP output C1500 watts PEP output D2000 watts PEP output TG1C02 '[97.313b] RC QWhat is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use Qon 7080 kHz? A200 watts PEP output B1000 watts PEP output C1500 watts PEP output D2000 watts PEP output TG1C03 '[97.313c1] RA QWhat is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use Qon 10.140 MHz? A200 watts PEP output B1000 watts PEP output C1500 watts PEP output D2000 watts PEP output TG1C04 '[97.313c1] RA QWhat is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use Qon 21.150 MHz? A200 watts PEP output B1000 watts PEP output C1500 watts PEP output D2000 watts PEP output TG1C05 '[97.313b] RC QWhat is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use Qon 24.950 MHz? A200 watts PEP output B1000 watts PEP output C1500 watts PEP output D2000 watts PEP output TG1C06 '[97.315a] RD QExternal RF power amplifiers designed to operate below what Qfrequency may require FCC type acceptance? A28 MHz B35 MHz C50 MHz D144 MHz TG1C07 '[97.315a] RB QWithout a grant of FCC type acceptance, how many external RF Qamplifiers of a given design capable of operation below 144 MHz Qmay you build or modify in one calendar year? ANone B1 C5 D10 TG1C08 '[97.317c6i] RB QWhich of the following standards must be met if FCC type Qacceptance of an external RF amplifier is required? AThe amplifier must not be able to amplify a 28-MHz signal to Amore than ten times the input power BThe amplifier must not be capable of reaching its designed Boutput power when driven with less than 50 watts CThe amplifier must not be able to be operated for more than Cten minutes without a time delay circuit DThe amplifier must not be able to be modified by an amateur Doperator TG1C09 '[97.317b/c] RD QWhich of the following would NOT disqualify an external RF power Qamplifier from being granted FCC type acceptance? AThe capability of being modified by the operator for use Aoutside the amateur bands BThe capability of achieving full output power when driven Bwith less than 50 watts CThe capability of achieving full output power on amateur Cfrequencies between 24 and 35 MHz DThe capability of being switched by the operator to all Damateur frequencies below 24 MHz TG1C10 '[97.307f3] RA QWhat is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emissions Qbelow 28 MHz? A300 bauds B1200 bauds C19.6 kilobauds D56 kilobauds TG1C11 '[97.307f3] RD QWhat is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions Qbelow 28 MHz? A56 kilobauds B19.6 kilobauds C1200 bauds D300 bauds 'G1D Examination element preparation; examination TG1D01 '[97.507a2] RB QWhat telegraphy examination elements may you prepare if you hold Qa General class license? ANone BElement 1A only CElement 1B only DElements 1A and 1B TG1D02 '[97.507a2&3] RC QWhat written examination elements may you prepare if you hold a QGeneral class license? ANone BElement 2 only CElements 2 and 3A DElements 2, 3A and 3B TG1D03 '[97.511b1] RC QWhat license examinations may you administer if you hold a QGeneral class license? ANone BNovice only CNovice and Technician DNovice, Technician and General TG1D04 '[97.501e] RB QWhat minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a QNovice license? AElement 2 only BElements 1A and 2 CElements 2 and 3A DElements 1A, 2 and 3A TG1D05 '[97.501d] RC QWhat minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a QTechnician license? AElement 2 only BElements 1A and 2 CElements 2 and 3A DElements 1A, 2 and 3A TG1D06 '[97.301e/501d] RD QWhat minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a QTechnician license with HF privileges? AElement 2 only BElements 1A and 2 CElements 2 and 3A DElements 1A, 2 and 3A TG1D07 '[97.511a/b] RA QWhat are the requirements for administering Novice examinations? AThree VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be Apresent BTwo VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be Bpresent CTwo General class or higher VEs must be present, but only one Cneed be VEC accredited DAny two General class or higher VEs must be present TG1D08 '[97.507a] RD QWhen may you participate as an administering Volunteer Examiner Q(VE) for a Novice license examination? AOnce you have notified the FCC that you want to give an Aexamination BOnce you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of BExamination (CSCE) for General class COnce you have prepared telegraphy and written examinations Cfor the Novice license, or obtained them from a qualified Csupplier DOnce you have received both your FCC-issued General class or Dhigher license in the mail and VEC accreditation TG1D09 '[97.119e2] RB QIf you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful QCompletion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do Qyou identify your station when transmitting on 14.035 MHz? AYou must give your call sign and the location of the VE Aexamination where you obtained the CSCE BYou must give your call sign, followed by the slant mark "/", Bfollowed by the identifier "AG" CYou may not operate on 14.035 MHz until your new license Carrives DNo special form of identification is needed TG1D10 '[97.119e2] RC QIf you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful QCompletion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do Qyou identify your station when transmitting phone emissions on Q14.325 MHz? ANo special form of identification is needed BYou may not operate on 14.325 MHz until your new license Barrives CYou must give your call sign, followed by any suitable word Cthat denotes the slant mark and the identifier "AG" DYou must give your call sign and the location of the VE Dexamination where you obtained the CSCE TG1D11 '[97.119e2] RA QIf you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful QCompletion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, when Qmust you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign? AWhenever you operate using your new frequency privileges BWhenever you operate CWhenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges DA special identifier is not required as long as your General Dclass license application has been filed with the FCC 'SUBELEMENT G2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [3 exam questions - 3 N3 'G2A Phone, RTTY, repeater, VOX and full break-in CW TG2A01 RA QWhich sideband is commonly used for 20-meter phone operation? AUpper BLower CAmplitude compandored DDouble TG2A02 RB QWhich sideband is commonly used on 3925-kHz for phone operation? AUpper BLower CAmplitude compandored DDouble TG2A03 RA QIn what segment of the 80-meter band do most RTTY transmissions Qtake place? A3610 - 3630 kHz B3500 - 3525 kHz C3700 - 3750 kHz D3775 - 3825 kHz TG2A04 RB QIn what segment of the 20-meter band do most RTTY transmissions Qtake place? A14.000 - 14.050 MHz B14.075 - 14.100 MHz C14.150 - 14.225 MHz D14.275 - 14.350 MHz TG2A05 RC QWhat is the Baudot code? AA 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits BA 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three Bspace bits CA 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits DA 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits TG2A06 RA QWhat is ASCII? AA 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits BA 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three Bspace bits CA 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits DA 5-bit code in which each character has three mark and two Dspace bits TG2A07 RB QWhat is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the Qamateur HF bands? A85 Hz B170 Hz C425 Hz D850 Hz TG2A08 RB QWhat are the two major AMTOR operating modes? AMode AM and Mode TR BMode A (ARQ) and Mode B (FEC) CMode C (CRQ) and Mode D (DEC) DMode SELCAL and Mode LISTEN TG2A09 RA QWhat is the usual input/output frequency separation for a Q10-meter station in repeater operation? A100 kHz B600 kHz C1.6 MHz D170 Hz TG2A10 RB QWhat is the circuit called which causes a transmitter to Qautomatically transmit when an operator speaks into its Qmicrophone? AVXO BVOX CVCO DVFO TG2A11 RD QWhich of the following describes full break-in telegraphy? ABreaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK BAutomatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand Bkeys CAn operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before Cand after every transmission DIncoming signals are received between transmitted key pulses 'G2B Operating courtesy, antenna orientation and HF operations, TG2B01 RD QIf you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should Qyou do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just Qbefore the net begins? AReduce your output power and start the net as usual BIncrease your power output so that net participants will be Bable to hear you over the existing activity CCancel the net for that day DConduct the net on a frequency 3 to 5 kHz away from the Dregular net frequency TG2B02 RA QIf a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another Qstation are using, what should you do? AAs a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency BIncrease your power output to ensure that all net Bparticipants can hear you CTransmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no Cother stations may use it DTurn off your radio TG2B03 RD QIf propagation changes during your contact and you notice Qincreasing interference from other activity on the same Qfrequency, what should you do? ATell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you Awere there first BReport the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary BCoordinator CTurn on your amplifier to overcome the interference DMove your contact to another frequency TG2B04 RB QWhen selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum Qfrequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow Qto minimize interference? A5 to 50 Hz B150 to 500 Hz C1 to 3 kHz D3 to 6 kHz TG2B05 RB QWhen selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency, Qwhat minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress Qshould you allow (between suppressed carriers) to minimize Qinterference? A150 to 500 Hz BApproximately 3 kHz CApproximately 6 kHz DApproximately 10 kHz TG2B06 RB QWhen selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum Qfrequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow Q(center to center) to minimize interference? A60 Hz B250 to 500 Hz CApproximately 3 kHz DApproximately 6 kHz TG2B07 RB QWhat is an azimuthal map? AA map projection centered on the North Pole BA map projection centered on a particular location, used to Bdetermine the shortest path between points on the surface of the Bearth CA map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite Ccrosses the equator DA map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an Damateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with Deach orbit TG2B08 RA QWhat is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a Qdirectional HF antenna toward a distant station? AAzimuthal BMercator CPolar projection DTopographical TG2B09 RC QA directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to Qanother station is generally oriented how many degrees from its Qshort-path heading? A45 degrees B90 degrees C180 degrees D270 degrees TG2B10 RA QWhat is a band plan? AA guideline for using different operating modes within an Aamateur band BA guideline for deviating from FCC amateur frequency band Ballocations CA plan of operating schedules within an amateur band Cpublished by the FCC DA plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during Da contest TG2B11 RB QIn which International Telecommunication Union Region is the Qcontinental United States? ARegion 1 BRegion 2 CRegion 3 DRegion 4 'G2C Emergencies, including drills, communications and amateur TG2C01 RC QWhat means may an amateur station in distress use to attract Qattention, make known its condition and location, and obtain Qassistance? AOnly Morse code signals sent on internationally recognized Aemergency channels BAny means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally Brecognized emergency channels CAny means of radiocommunication DOnly those means of radiocommunication for which the station Dis licensed TG2C02 RA QDuring a disaster in the US, when may an amateur station make Qtransmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and Qassist relief operations? AWhen normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or Adisrupted BOnly when the local RACES net is activated CNever; only official emergency stations may transmit in a Cdisaster DWhen normal communication systems are working but are not Dconvenient TG2C03 RA QIf a disaster disrupts normal communications in your area, what Qmay the FCC do? ADeclare a temporary state of communication emergency BTemporarily seize your equipment for use in disaster Bcommunications COrder all stations across the country to stop transmitting at Conce DNothing until the President declares the area a disaster area TG2C04 RD QIf a disaster disrupts normal communications in an area, what Qwould the FCC include in any notice of a temporary state of Qcommunication emergency? AAny additional test questions needed for the licensing of Aamateur emergency communications workers BA list of organizations authorized to temporarily seize your Bequipment for disaster communications CAny special conditions requiring the use of non-commercial Cpower systems DAny special conditions and special rules to be observed by Dstations during the emergency TG2C05 RD QDuring an emergency, what power output limitations must be Qobserved by a station in distress? A200 watts PEP B1500 watts PEP C1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts CPEP during the night DThere are no limitations during an emergency TG2C06 RC QDuring a disaster in the US, what frequencies may be used to Qobtain assistance? AOnly frequencies in the 80-meter band BOnly frequencies in the 40-meter band CAny frequency DAny United Nations approved frequency TG2C07 RB QIf you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a Qstation in distress break in, what should you do? AContinue your communication because you were on frequency Afirst BAcknowledge the station in distress and determine its Blocation and what assistance may be needed CChange to a different frequency so the station in distress Cmay have a clear channel to call for assistance DImmediately cease all transmissions because stations in Ddistress have emergency rights to the frequency TG2C08 RA QWhy do stations in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service Q(RACES) participate in training tests and drills? ATo practice orderly and efficient operations for the civil Adefense organization they serve BTo ensure that members attend monthly on-the-air meetings CTo ensure that RACES members are able to conduct tests and Cdrills DTo acquaint members of RACES with other members they may meet Din an emergency TG2C09 RC QWhat type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in Qa foreign country? AMessages of any type BMessages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in Bnature CMessages of a technical nature or personal remarks of Crelative unimportance DMessages of any type, but only if the foreign country has a Dthird-party communications agreement with the US TG2C10 RA QWhat is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations QBureau? AAmateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the Aairwaves for rules violations BAmateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations CAmateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for Camateur VHF repeaters DAmateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help Dcivil defense organizations in times of emergency TG2C11 RB QWhat are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's QField Operations Bureau? ATo conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing Aexaminations BTo encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the Brules CTo coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum Cusage DTo provide emergency and public safety communications 'SUBELEMENT G3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 exam questions - 3 N3 'G3A Ionospheric disturbances; sunspots and solar radiation TG3A01 RA QWhat can be done at an amateur station to continue communications Qduring a sudden ionospheric disturbance? ATry a higher frequency BTry the other sideband CTry a different antenna polarization DTry a different frequency shift TG3A02 RB QWhat effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the Qdaylight ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves? AIt disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude Apaths BIt disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on Bhigher frequencies CIt disrupts communications via satellite more than direct Ccommunications DNone, only areas on the night side of the earth are affected TG3A03 RC QHow long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray Qradiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on Qthe earth? AThe effect is instantaneous B1.5 seconds C8 minutes D20 to 40 hours TG3A04 RB QWhat is solar flux? AThe density of the sun's magnetic field BThe radio energy emitted by the sun CThe number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Cearth DA measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side Dtoward the sun TG3A05 RD QWhat is the solar-flux index? AA measure of solar activity that is taken annually BA measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with Bresults from the last six months CAnother name for the American sunspot number DA measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific Dfrequency TG3A06 RD QWhat is a geomagnetic disturbance? AA sudden drop in the solar-flux index BA shifting of the earth's magnetic pole CRipples in the ionosphere DA dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short Dperiod of time TG3A07 RA QAt which latitudes are propagation paths more sensitive to Qgeomagnetic disturbances? AThose greater than 45 degrees latitude BThose between 5 and 45 degrees latitude CThose near the equator DAll paths are affected equally TG3A08 RB QWhat can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on radio-wave Qpropagation? AImproved high-latitude HF propagation BDegraded high-latitude HF propagation CImproved ground-wave propagation DImproved chances of UHF ducting TG3A09 RA QWhat influences all radio communication beyond ground-wave or Qline-of-sight ranges? ASolar activity BLunar tidal effects CThe F1 region of the ionosphere DThe F2 region of the ionosphere TG3A10 RB QWhich two types of radiation from the sun influence propagation? ASubaudible- and audio-frequency emissions BElectromagnetic and particle emissions CPolar-region and equatorial emissions DInfrared and gamma-ray emissions TG3A11 RC QWhen sunspot numbers are high, how is the ionosphere affected? AHigh-frequency radio signals are absorbed BFrequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are normally usable for Blong-distance communication CFrequencies up to 40 MHz or higher are normally usable for Clong-distance communication DHigh-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted 'G3B Maximum usable frequency, propagation "hops" TG3B01 RB QIf the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota to QFrance is 22 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a Qsuccessful contact? A10 meters B15 meters C20 meters D40 Meters TG3B02 RC QIf the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to Germany Qis 17 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a Qsuccessful contact? A80 meters B40 meters C20 meters D2 meters TG3B03 RC QIf the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high and HF radio-wave Qpropagation is generally good for several days, a similar Qcondition can usually be expected how many days later? A7 B14 C28 D90 TG3B04 RA QWhat is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency Q(MUF) is high enough to support 28-MHz propagation between your Qstation and western Europe? AListen for signals on the 10-meter beacon frequency BListen for signals on the 20-meter beacon frequency CListen for signals on the 39-meter broadcast frequency DListen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz TG3B05 RA QWhat usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Qmaximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the Qionosphere? AThey are bent back to the earth BThey pass through the ionosphere CThey are completely absorbed by the ionosphere DThey are changed to a frequency above the MUF TG3B06 RC QWhere would you tune to hear beacons that would help you Qdetermine propagation conditions on the 20-meter band? A28.2 MHz B21.1 MHz C14.1 MHz D14.2 MHz TG3B07 RD QDuring periods of low solar activity, which frequencies are the Qleast reliable for long-distance communication? AFrequencies below 3.5 MHz BFrequencies near 3.5 MHz CFrequencies on or above 10 MHz DFrequencies above 20 MHz TG3B08 RD QAt what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually Qsupport worldwide propagation during daylight hours? AAt the summer solstice BOnly at the maximum point of the solar cycle COnly at the minimum point of the solar cycle DAt any point in the solar cycle TG3B09 RA QWhat is one characteristic of gray-line propagation? AIt is very efficient BIt improves local communications CIt is very poor DIt increases D-region absorption TG3B10 RC QWhat is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is Qnormally covered in one hop using the F2 region? A180 miles B1200 miles C2500 miles DNone; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation TG3B11 RB QWhat is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is Qnormally covered in one hop using the E region? A180 miles B1200 miles C2500 miles DNone; the E region does not support radio-wave propagation 'G3C Height of ionospheric regions, critical angle and frequency, TG3C01 RB QWhat is the average height of maximum ionization of the E region? A45 miles B70 miles C200 miles D1200 miles TG3C02 RA QWhen can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at Qyour location? AAt noon during the summer BAt midnight during the summer CAt dusk in the spring and fall DAt noon during the winter TG3C03 RC QWhy is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest-distance Qradio-wave propagation? ABecause it exists only at night BBecause it is the lowest ionospheric region CBecause it is the highest ionospheric region DBecause it does not absorb radio waves as much as other Dionospheric regions TG3C04 RD QWhat is the "critical angle" as used in radio-wave propagation? AThe lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Aearth under specific ionospheric conditions BThe compass direction of a distant station CThe compass direction opposite that of a distant station DThe highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Dthe earth under specific ionospheric conditions TG3C05 RC QWhat is the main reason the 160-, 80- and 40-meter amateur bands Qtend to be useful only for short-distance communications during Qdaylight hours? ABecause of a lack of activity BBecause of auroral propagation CBecause of D-region absorption DBecause of magnetic flux TG3C06 RB QWhat is a characteristic of HF scatter signals? AHigh intelligibility BA wavering sound CReversed modulation DReversed sidebands TG3C07 RD QWhat makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted? AAuroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field BPropagation through ground waves that absorb much of the Bsignal CThe state of the E-region at the point of refraction DEnergy scattered into the skip zone through several Dradio-wave paths TG3C08 RA QWhy are HF scatter signals usually weak? AOnly a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the Askip zone BAuroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy CPropagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal Cenergy DThe F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal Denergy TG3C09 RB QWhat type of radio-wave propagation allows a signal to be Qdetected at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but Qtoo near for normal sky-wave propagation? AGround wave BScatter CSporadic-E skip DShort-path skip TG3C10 RD QWhen does scatter propagation on the HF bands most often occur? AWhen the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region Aabsorption is high BAt night CWhen the F1 and F2 regions are combined DWhen communicating on frequencies above the maximum usable Dfrequency (MUF) TG3C11 RA QWhat type of signal fading occurs when two or more parts of a Qradio wave follow different paths? AMultipath interference BMultimode interference CSelective Interference DIonospheric interference 'SUBELEMENT G4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 exam questions - 5 N5 'G4A Two-tone test; electronic TR switch, amplifier TG4A01 RC QWhat kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity Qof a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output Qon an oscilloscope? ANormal speech BAn audio-frequency sine wave CTwo audio-frequency sine waves DAn audio-frequency square wave TG4A02 RC QWhen testing the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband Qtransmitter, what kind of audio tones are fed into the microphone Qinput and on what kind of instrument is the output observed? ATwo harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is Aobserved on an oscilloscope BTwo harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is Bobserved on a distortion analyzer CTwo non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output Cis observed on an oscilloscope DTwo non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output Dis observed on a distortion analyzer TG4A03 RD QWhat audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the Qlinearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter? A20 Hz and 20 kHz tones must be used B1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used CAny two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the Ctransmitter audio passband, and must be harmonically related DAny two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the Dtransmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically Drelated TG4A04 RD QWhat measurement can be made of a single-sideband phone Qtransmitter's amplifier by performing a two-tone test using an Qoscilloscope? AIts percent of frequency modulation BIts percent of carrier phase shift CIts frequency deviation DIts linearity TG4A05 RA QAt what point in an HF transceiver block diagram would an Qelectronic TR switch normally appear? ABetween the transmitter and low-pass filter BBetween the low-pass filter and antenna CAt the antenna feed point DAt the power supply feed point TG4A06 RC QWhy is an electronic TR switch preferable to a mechanical one? AIt allows greater receiver sensitivity BIts circuitry is simpler CIt has a higher operating speed DIt allows cleaner output signals TG4A07 RA QAs a power amplifier is tuned, what reading on its grid-current Qmeter indicates the best neutralization? AA minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is Achanged BA maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is Bchanged CMinimum grid current DMaximum grid current TG4A08 RD QWhy is neutralization necessary for some vacuum-tube amplifiers? ATo reduce the limits of loaded Q BTo reduce grid-to-cathode leakage CTo cancel AC hum from the filament transformer DTo cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode Dcapacitance TG4A09 '3BD-4.3 RC QIn a properly neutralized RF amplifier, what type of feedback is Qused? A5% B10% CNegative DPositive TG4A10 RB QWhat does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier? AIt controls differential gain BIt cancels the effects of positive feedback CIt eliminates AC hum from the power supply DIt reduces incidental grid modulation TG4A11 RB QWhat is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of Qa transmitter? ATo limit the modulation index BTo eliminate self oscillations CTo cut off the final amplifier during standby periods DTo keep the carrier on frequency 'G4B Test equipment: oscilloscope; signal tracer; antenna noise TG4B01 RD QWhat item of test equipment contains horizontal- and Qvertical-channel amplifiers? AAn ohmmeter BA signal generator CAn ammeter DAn oscilloscope TG4B02 RD QHow would a signal tracer normally be used? ATo identify the source of radio transmissions BTo make exact drawings of signal waveforms CTo show standing wave patterns on open-wire feed lines DTo identify an inoperative stage in a receiver TG4B03 RB QWhy would you use an antenna noise bridge? ATo measure the noise figure of an antenna or other electrical Acircuit BTo measure the impedance of an antenna or other electrical Bcircuit CTo cancel electrical noise picked up by an antenna DTo tune out noise in a receiver TG4B04 RC QHow is an antenna noise bridge normally used? AIt is connected at an antenna's feed point and reads the Aantenna's noise figure BIt is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and is Btuned for minimum SWR CIt is connected between a receiver and an unknown impedance Cand is tuned for minimum noise DIt is connected between an antenna and ground and is tuned Dfor minimum SWR TG4B05 RA QWhat is the best instrument to use to check the signal quality of Qa CW or single-sideband phone transmitter? AA monitoring oscilloscope BA field-strength meter CA sidetone monitor DA signal tracer and an audio amplifier TG4B06 RD QWhat signal source is connected to the vertical input of a Qmonitoring oscilloscope when checking the quality of a Qtransmitted signal? AThe IF output of a monitoring receiver BThe audio input of the transmitter CThe RF signals of a nearby receiving antenna DThe RF output of the transmitter TG4B07 RA QWhat instrument can be used to determine the horizontal radiation Qpattern of an antenna? AA field-strength meter BA grid-dip meter CAn oscilloscope DA signal tracer and an audio amplifier TG4B08 '3BD-17.3 RC QHow is a field-strength meter normally used? ATo determine the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line BTo check the output modulation of a transmitter CTo monitor relative RF output DTo increase average transmitter output TG4B09 RA QWhat simple instrument may be used to monitor relative RF output Qduring antenna and transmitter adjustments? AA field-strength meter BAn antenna noise bridge CA multimeter DA metronome TG4B10 RB QIf the power output of a transmitter is increased by four times, Qhow might a nearby receiver's S-meter reading change? ADecrease by approximately one S unit BIncrease by approximately one S unit CIncrease by approximately four S units DDecrease by approximately four S units TG4B11 RC QBy how many times must the power output of a transmitter be Qincreased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from QS8 to S9? AApproximately 2 times BApproximately 3 times CApproximately 4 times DApproximately 5 times 'G4C Audio rectification in consumer electronics, RF ground TG4C01 RB QWhat devices would you install to reduce or eliminate Qaudio-frequency interference to home-entertainment systems? ABypass inductors BBypass capacitors CMetal-oxide varistors DBypass resistors TG4C02 RB QWhat should be done if a properly operating amateur station is Qthe cause of interference to a nearby telephone? AMake internal adjustments to the telephone equipment BAsk the telephone company to install RFI filters CStop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use DGround and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier TG4C03 RC QWhat sound is heard from a public-address system if audio Qrectification of a nearby single-sideband phone transmission Qoccurs? AA steady hum whenever the transmitter's carrier is on the air BOn-and-off humming or clicking CDistorted speech from the transmitter's signals DClearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals TG4C04 RA QWhat sound is heard from a public-address system if audio Qrectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs? AOn-and-off humming or clicking BAudible, possibly distorted speech CMuffled, severely distorted speech DA steady whistling TG4C05 RC QHow can you minimize the possibility of audio rectification of Qyour transmitter's signals? ABy using a solid-state transmitter BBy using CW emission only CBy ensuring that all station equipment is properly grounded DBy installing bypass capacitors on all power supply Drectifiers TG4C06 RD QIf your third-floor amateur station has a ground wire running 33 Qfeet down to a ground rod, why might you get an RF burn if you Qtouch the front panel of your HF transceiver? ABecause the ground rod is not making good contact with moist Aearth BBecause the transceiver's heat-sensing circuit is not working Bto start the cooling fan CBecause of a bad antenna connection, allowing the RF energy Cto take an easier path out of the transceiver through you DBecause the ground wire is a resonant length on several HF Dbands and acts more like an antenna than an RF ground connection TG4C07 RA QWhat is NOT an important reason to have a good station ground? ATo reduce the cost of operating a station BTo reduce electrical noise CTo reduce interference DTo reduce the possibility of electric shock TG4C08 RA QWhat is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in your amateur Qstation? AKeep the station's ground wire as short as possible BUse a beryllium ground wire for best conductivity CDrive the ground rod at least 14 feet into the ground DMake a couple of loops in the ground wire where it connects Dto your station TG4C09 RB QWhich statement about station grounding is NOT true? ABraid from RG-213 coaxial cable makes a good conductor to tie Astation equipment together into a station ground BOnly transceivers and power amplifiers need to be tied into a Bstation ground CAccording to the National Electrical Code, there should be Conly one grounding system in a building DThe minimum length for a good ground rod is 8 feet TG4C10 RC QWhich statement about station grounding is true? AThe chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied Atogether with high-impedance conductors BIf the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a Bgood conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground CRF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground Cfloor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire DA ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment TG4C11 RD QWhich of the following is NOT covered in the National Electrical QCode? AMinimum conductor sizes for different lengths of amateur Aantennas BThe size and composition of grounding conductors CElectrical safety inside the ham shack DThe RF exposure limits of the human body 'G4D Speech processors; PEP calculations; wire sizes and fuses TG4D01 RD QWhat is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor Qwith a single-sideband phone transmitter? AIt reduces average transmitter power requirements BIt reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone CIt improves voice frequency fidelity DIt improves signal intelligibility at the receiver TG4D02 RB QIf a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what Qwill a speech processor do to the transmitter's power? AIt will increase the output PEP BIt will add nothing to the output PEP CIt will decrease the peak power output DIt will decrease the average power output TG4D03 RB QHow is the output PEP of a transmitter calculated if an Qoscilloscope is used to measure the transmitter's peak load Qvoltage across a resistive load? APEP = [(Vp)(Vp)] / (RL) BPEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)] / RL CPEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL) DPEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)] / RL TG4D04 RA QWhat is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope Qmeasures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor Qconnected to the transmitter output? A100 watts B200 watts C400 watts D1000 watts TG4D05 RB QWhat is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope Qmeasures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor Qconnected to the transmitter output? A500 watts B625 watts C1250 watts D2500 watts TG4D06 RB QWhat is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier transmitter if Qan average-reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output Qindicates 1060 watts? A530 watts B1060 watts C1500 watts D2120 watts TG4D07 RA QWhich wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to Qfuses in a 240-VAC primary (single phase) power supply? AOnly the "hot" (black and red) wires BOnly the "neutral" (white) wire COnly the ground (bare) wire DAll wires TG4D08 RA QWhat size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 120-VAC household Qlighting circuit? AAWG number 14 BAWG number 16 CAWG number 18 DAWG number 22 TG4D09 RD QWhat size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 120-VAC household Qappliance circuit? AAWG number 20 BAWG number 16 CAWG number 14 DAWG number 12 TG4D10 RD QWhat maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a Qhousehold appliance circuit using AWG number 12 wiring? A100 amperes B60 amperes C30 amperes D20 amperes TG4D11 RA QWhat maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a Qhousehold appliance circuit using AWG number 14 wiring? A15 amperes B20 amperes C30 amperes D60 amperes 'G4E RF safety TG4E01 RA QDepending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of Qthe RF field, and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect Qbody tissue? AIt heats the tissue BIt causes radiation poisoning CIt causes blood flow to stop DIt produces genetic changes in the tissue TG4E02 RC QIf you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what Qprecautions should you take when you install them? ALocate the antennas close to your operating position to Aminimize feed-line length BPosition the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets Bthe floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation CLocate the antennas as far away as possible from living Cspaces that will be occupied while you are operating DPosition the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to Dtake advantage of parasitic effects TG4E03 RA QWhat precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments to Qthe feed system of a parabolic dish antenna? ABe sure no one can activate the transmitter BDisconnect the antenna-positioning mechanism CPoint the dish away from the sun so it doesn't concentrate Csolar energy on you DBe sure you and the antenna structure are properly grounded TG4E04 RB QWhat is one important thing to consider when using an indoor Qantenna? AUse stranded wire to reduce stray RF BEnsure that the antenna is as far away from people as Bpossible CUse only a Yagi antenna to direct the signals away from Cpeople DUse as much power as possible to ensure that your signal gets Dout TG4E05 RA QWhy should a protective fence be placed around the base of a Qground-mounted parabolic dish transmitting antenna? ATo reduce the possibility of persons being harmed by RF Aenergy during transmissions BTo reduce the possibility that animals will damage the Bantenna CTo increase the property value through increased security Cawareness DTo protect the antenna from lightning damage and provide a Dgood ground system for the installation TG4E06 RB QWhat RF-safety precautions should you take before beginning Qrepairs on an antenna? ABe sure you and the antenna structure are grounded BBe sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed Bline CInform your neighbors so they are aware of your intentions DTurn off the main power switch in your house TG4E07 RD QWhat precaution should you take when installing a ground-mounted Qantenna? AIt should not be installed higher than you can reach BIt should not be installed in a wet area CIt should be painted so people or animals do not accidentally Crun into it DIt should be installed so no one can come in contact with it TG4E08 RB QWhat precautions should you take before beginning repairs on a Qmicrowave feed horn or waveguide? ABe sure to wear tight-fitting clothes and gloves to protect Ayour body and hands from sharp edges BBe sure the transmitter is turned off and the power source is Bdisconnected CBe sure the weather is dry and sunny DBe sure propagation conditions are unfavorable for Dtropospheric ducting TG4E09 RD QWhy should directional high-gain antennas be mounted higher than Qnearby structures? ASo they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm BSo they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy CSo they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves DSo they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby Dstructures TG4E10 RC QFor best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a dipole Qantenna be located? ANear or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away Afrom the ground BAs close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be Bconcentrated near the transmitter CAs high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact Cwith the antenna DClose to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made Dwithout climbing a ladder TG4E11 RB QWhich property of RF energy is NOT important in estimating the Qenergy's effect on body tissue? AThe polarization BThe critical angle CThe power density DThe frequency 'SUBELEMENT G5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [2 exam questions - 2 N2 'G5A Impedance, including matching; resistance, including ohm; TG5A01 RC QWhat is impedance? AThe electric charge stored by a capacitor BThe opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing only Bcapacitance CThe opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit DThe force of repulsion between one electric field and another Dwith the same charge TG5A02 RB QWhat is reactance? AOpposition to DC caused by resistors BOpposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors CA property of ideal resistors in AC circuits DA large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is Dde-energized TG5A03 RD QIn an inductor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC? AResistance BReluctance CAdmittance DReactance TG5A04 RC QIn a capacitor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC? AResistance BReluctance CReactance DAdmittance TG5A05 RD QHow does a coil react to AC? AAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance Adecreases BAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance Bincreases CAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance Cdecreases DAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance Dincreases TG5A06 RA QHow does a capacitor react to AC? AAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance Adecreases BAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance Bincreases CAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance Cincreases DAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance Ddecreases TG5A07 RA QWhen will a power source deliver maximum output to the load? AWhen the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of Athe source BWhen the load resistance is infinite CWhen the power-supply fuse rating equals the primary winding Ccurrent DWhen air wound transformers are used instead of iron-core Dtransformers TG5A08 RD QWhat happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to Qthe internal impedance of the power source? AThe source delivers minimum power to the load BThe electrical load is shorted CNo current can flow through the circuit DThe source delivers maximum power to the load TG5A09 RA QWhy is impedance matching important? ASo the source can deliver maximum power to the load BSo the load will draw minimum power from the source CTo ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the Ccircuit DTo ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit Dare equal TG5A10 RB QWhat unit is used to measure reactance? AMho BOhm CAmpere DSiemens TG5A11 RB QWhat unit is used to measure impedance? AVolt BOhm CAmpere DWatt 'G5B Decibel, Ohm's Law, current and voltage dividers, electrical TG5B01 RB QA two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB? A1 dB higher B3 dB higher C6 dB higher D12 dB higher TG5B02 RB QHow can you decrease your transmitter's power by 3 dB? ADivide the original power by 1.5 BDivide the original power by 2 CDivide the original power by 3 DDivide the original power by 4 TG5B03 RD QHow can you increase your transmitter's power by 6 dB? AMultiply the original power by 1.5 BMultiply the original power by 2 CMultiply the original power by 3 DMultiply the original power by 4 TG5B04 RC QIf a signal-strength report is "10 dB over S9", what should the Qreport be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to Q150 watts? AS5 BS7 CS9 DS9 plus 5 dB TG5B05 RC QIf a signal-strength report is "20 dB over S9", what should the Qreport be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to Q15 watts? AS5 BS7 CS9 DS9 plus 10 dB TG5B06 RD QIf a 1.0-ampere current source is connected to two Qparallel-connected 10-ohm resistors, how much current passes Qthrough each resistor? A10 amperes B2 amperes C1 ampere D0.5 ampere TG5B07 RB QIn a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch Qresistors, how is the total current related to the current in the Qbranch resistors? AIt equals the average of the branch current through each Aresistor BIt equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor CIt decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the Ccircuit DIt is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by Dthe total number of resistors TG5B08 RB QHow many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is Qsupplied to an 800-ohm load? A0.5 watts B200 watts C400 watts D320,000 watts TG5B09 RD QHow many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light Qbulb that draws 0.2 amperes? A60 watts B24 watts C6 watts D2.4 watts TG5B10 RA QHow many watts are being dissipated when 7.0 milliamperes flow Qthrough 1.25 kilohms? AApproximately 61 milliwatts BApproximately 39 milliwatts CApproximately 11 milliwatts DApproximately 9 milliwatts TG5B11 RC QWhat is the voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a Qtransformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC? A2370 volts B540 volts C26.7 volts D5.9 volts TG5B12 RA QWhat is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio Qamplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a Q4-ohm impedance? A12.2 to 1 B24.4 to 1 C150 to 1 D300 to 1 TG5B13 RD QWhat is the impedance of a speaker that requires a transformer Qwith a turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an audio amplifier having Qan output impedance of 2000 ohms? A576 ohms B83.3 ohms C7.0 ohms D3.5 ohms TG5B14 RB QA DC voltage equal to what value of an applied sine-wave AC Qvoltage would produce the same amount of heat over time in a Qresistive element? AThe peak-to-peak value BThe RMS value CThe average value DThe peak value TG5B15 RD QWhat is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS Qvoltage of 120 volts? A84.8 volts B169.7 volts C204.8 volts D339.4 volts TG5B16 RB QA sine wave of 17 volts peak is equivalent to how many volts RMS? A8.5 volts B12 volts C24 volts D34 volts 'SUBELEMENT G6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [1 exam question - 1 group] N1 'G6A Resistors, capacitors, inductors, rectifiers and TG6A01 RC QIf a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will happen Qto the resistance? AIt will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade BIt will stay the same CIt will change depending on the resistor's temperature Ccoefficient rating DIt will become time dependent TG6A02 RD QWhat type of capacitor is often used in power-supply circuits to Qfilter the rectified AC? ADisc ceramic BVacuum variable CMica DElectrolytic TG6A03 RD QWhat type of capacitor is used in power-supply circuits to filter Qtransient voltage spikes across the transformer's secondary Qwinding? AHigh-value BTrimmer CVacuum variable DSuppressor TG6A04 RB QWhere is the source of energy connected in a transformer? ATo the secondary winding BTo the primary winding CTo the core DTo the plates TG6A05 RA QIf no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer, Qwhat is current in the primary winding called? AMagnetizing current BDirect current CExcitation current DStabilizing current TG6A06 RC QWhat is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power-supply Qrectifier? AThe maximum transient voltage the rectifier will handle in Athe conducting direction B1.4 times the AC frequency CThe maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the Cnon-conducting direction D2.8 times the AC frequency TG6A07 RA QWhat are the two major ratings that must not be exceeded for Qsilicon-diode rectifiers used in power-supply circuits? APeak inverse voltage; average forward current BAverage power; average voltage CCapacitive reactance; avalanche voltage DPeak load impedance; peak voltage TG6A08 RA QWhy should a resistor and capacitor be wired in parallel with Qpower-supply rectifier diodes? ATo equalize voltage drops and guard against transient voltage Aspikes BTo ensure that the current through each diode is about the Bsame CTo smooth the output waveform DTo decrease the output voltage TG6A09 RA QWhat is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier Qconnected to a resistive load? AA series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input BA series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input CA sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input DA steady DC voltage TG6A10 RB QA half-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each Qcycle? A90 degrees B180 degrees C270 degrees D360 degrees TG6A11 RD QA full-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each Qcycle? A90 degrees B180 degrees C270 degrees D360 degrees 'SUBELEMENT G7 - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [1 exam question - 1 group] N1 'G7A Power supplies and filters; single-sideband transmitters and TG7A01 RB QWhat safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide? AIt improves voltage regulation BIt discharges the filter capacitors CIt removes shock hazards from the induction coils DIt eliminates ground-loop current TG7A02 RA QWhere is a power-supply bleeder resistor connected? AAcross the filter capacitor BAcross the power-supply input CBetween the transformer primary and secondary windings DAcross the inductor in the output filter TG7A03 RD QWhat components are used in a power-supply filter network? ADiodes BTransformers and transistors CQuartz crystals DCapacitors and inductors TG7A04 RD QWhat should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier Qin a full-wave power supply? AOne-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply BHalf the normal output voltage of the power supply CEqual to the normal output voltage of the power supply DDouble the normal peak output voltage of the power supply TG7A05 RD QWhat should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier Qin a half-wave power supply? AOne-quarter to one-half the normal peak output voltage of the Apower supply BHalf the normal output voltage of the power supply CEqual to the normal output voltage of the power supply DOne to two times the normal peak output voltage of the power Dsupply TG7A06 RB QWhat should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to Qthe impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted? ASubstantially higher BAbout the same CSubstantially lower DTwice the transmission line impedance TG7A07 RB QIn a typical single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit Qprocesses signals from the balanced modulator and sends signals Qto the mixer? ACarrier oscillator BFilter CIF amplifier DRF amplifier TG7A08 RD QIn a single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes Qsignals from the carrier oscillator and the speech amplifier and Qsends signals to the filter? AMixer BDetector CIF amplifier DBalanced modulator TG7A09 RC QIn a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit Qprocesses signals from the RF amplifier and the local oscillator Qand sends signals to the IF filter? ABalanced modulator BIF amplifier CMixer DDetector TG7A10 RD QIn a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit Qprocesses signals from the IF amplifier and the BFO and sends Qsignals to the AF amplifier? ARF oscillator BIF filter CBalanced modulator DDetector TG7A11 RB QIn a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit Qprocesses signals from the IF filter and sends signals to the Qdetector? ARF oscillator BIF amplifier CMixer DBFO 'SUBELEMENT G8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [2 exam questions - 2 N2 'G8A Signal information, AM, FM, single and double sideband and TG8A01 RD QWhat type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an RF Qwave for the purpose of conveying information? AFrequency modulation BPhase modulation CAmplitude-rectification modulation DAmplitude modulation TG8A02 RB QWhat type of modulation system changes the phase of an RF wave Qfor the purpose of conveying information? APulse modulation BPhase modulation CPhase-rectification modulation DAmplitude modulation TG8A03 RD QWhat type of modulation system changes the frequency of an RF Qwave for the purpose of conveying information? APhase-rectification modulation BFrequency-rectification modulation CAmplitude modulation DFrequency modulation TG8A04 RB QWhat emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to Qan RF power amplifier? AMultiplex modulation BPhase modulation CAmplitude modulation DPulse modulation TG8A05 RD QIn what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) Qof the RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating audio? AFrequency shift keying BPulse modulation CFrequency modulation DAmplitude modulation TG8A06 RC QHow much is the carrier suppressed below peak output power in a Qsingle-sideband phone transmission? ANo more than 20 dB BNo more than 30 dB CAt least 40 dB DAt least 60 dB TG8A07 RC QWhat is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-sideband Qphone transmission? AOnly half the bandwidth is required for the same information Acontent BGreater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower Bdistortion CMore power can be put into the sidebands DSimpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband Dsuppressed-carrier signal TG8A08 RA QWhich popular phone emission uses the narrowest frequency Qbandwidth? ASingle-sideband BDouble-sideband CPhase-modulated DFrequency-modulated TG8A09 RD QWhat happens to the signal of an overmodulated single-sideband or Qdouble-sideband phone transmitter? AIt becomes louder with no other effects BIt occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency response CIt has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio DIt becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth TG8A10 RB QHow should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a Qsingle-sideband phone transmitter? AFor full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks BFor slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks CFor 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks DFor a dip in plate current TG8A11 RC QWhat is meant by flattopping in a single-sideband phone Qtransmission? ASignal distortion caused by insufficient collector current BThe transmitter's automatic level control is properly Badjusted CSignal distortion caused by excessive drive DThe transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed 'G8B Frequency mixing, multiplication, bandwidths, HF data TG8B01 RA QWhat receiver stage combines a 14.25-MHz input signal with a Q13.795-MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455-kHz intermediate Qfrequency (IF) signal? AMixer BBFO CVFO DMultiplier TG8B02 RB QIf a receiver mixes a 13.800-MHz VFO with a 14.255-MHz received Qsignal to produce a 455-kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, Qwhat type of interference will a 13.345-MHz signal produce in the Qreceiver? ALocal oscillator BImage response CMixer interference DIntermediate interference TG8B03 RA QWhat stage in a transmitter would change a 5.3-MHz input signal Qto 14.3 MHz? AA mixer BA beat frequency oscillator CA frequency multiplier DA linear translator TG8B04 RD QWhat is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that Qselects a harmonic of an HF signal to reach the desired operating Qfrequency? AMixer BReactance modulator CPreemphasis network DMultiplier TG8B05 RC QWhy isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz? AThe transmitter efficiency for this mode is low BHarmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels CThe bandwidth would exceed FCC limits DThe frequency stability would not be adequate TG8B06 RD QWhat is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission having a Q5-kHz deviation and a 3-kHz modulating frequency? A3 kHz B5 kHz C8 kHz D16 kHz TG8B07 RB QWhat is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz Qreactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz QFM-phone transmitter? A41.67 Hz B416.7 Hz C5 kHz D12 kHz TG8B08 RC QHow is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK signal? AThe frequency shift in hertz must be at least four times the Akeying speed in WPM BThe frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of keying Bspeed CGreater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts DGreater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts TG8B09 RB QWhat do RTTY, Morse code, AMTOR and packet communications have in Qcommon? AThey are multipath communications BThey are digital communications CThey are analog communications DThey are only for emergency communications TG8B10 RC QWhat is the duty cycle required of a transmitter when sending QMode B (FEC) AMTOR? A50% B75% C100% D125% TG8B11 RD QIn what segment of the 20-meter band are most AMTOR operations Qfound? AAt the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz BAt the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz CIn the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz DAt the bottom of the RTTY segment, near 14.075 MHz 'SUBELEMENT G9 - ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [4 exam questions - 4 N4 'G9A Yagi antennas - physical dimensions, impedance matching TG9A01 RA QHow can the SWR bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be Qincreased? AUse larger diameter elements BUse closer element spacing CUse traps on the elements DUse tapered-diameter elements TG9A02 RB QApproximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna Qfor 14.0 MHz? A17 feet B33 feet C35 feet D66 feet TG9A03 RB QApproximately how long is the director element of a Yagi antenna Qfor 21.1 MHz? A42 feet B21 feet C17 feet D10.5 feet TG9A04 RC QApproximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna Qfor 28.1 MHz? A8.75 feet B16.6 feet C17.5 feet D35 feet TG9A05 RB QWhich statement about a three-element Yagi antenna is true? AThe reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element BThe director is normally the shortest parasitic element CThe driven element is the longest parasitic element DLow feed-point impedance increases bandwidth TG9A06 RA QWhat is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding Qdirectors to a Yagi antenna? AGain increases BSWR increases CWeight decreases DWindload decreases TG9A07 RD QWhat are some advantages of a Yagi with wide element spacing? AHigh gain, lower loss and a low SWR BHigh front-to-back ratio and lower input resistance CShorter boom length, lower weight and wind resistance DHigh gain, less critical tuning and wider bandwidth TG9A08 RC QWhy is a Yagi antenna often used for radio communications on the Q20-meter band? AIt provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the Ahorizontal plane BIt is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a Bdipole or vertical antenna CIt helps reduce interference from other stations off to the Cside or behind DIt provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the DHF bands TG9A09 RC QWhat does "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a QYagi antenna? AThe number of directors versus the number of reflectors BThe relative position of the driven element with respect to Bthe reflectors and directors CThe power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to Cthe power radiated in exactly the opposite direction DThe power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to Dthe power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction TG9A10 RC QWhat is the "main lobe" of a Yagi antenna radiation pattern? AThe direction of least radiation from the antenna BThe point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element CThe direction of maximum radiated field strength from the Cantenna DThe maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating Delement TG9A11 RA QWhat is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi Qantenna? AOptimize the lengths and spacing of the elements BUse RG-58 feed line CUse a reactance bridge to measure the antenna performance Cfrom each direction around the antenna DAvoid using towers higher than 30 feet above the ground 'G9B Loop antennas - physical dimensions, impedance matching, TG9B01 RB QApproximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna Qdriven element for 21.4 MHz? A1.17 feet B11.7 feet C47 feet D469 feet TG9B02 RA QApproximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna Qdriven element for 14.3 MHz? A17.6 feet B23.4 feet C70.3 feet D175 feet TG9B03 RB QApproximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna Qreflector element for 29.6 MHz? A8.23 feet B8.7 feet C9.7 feet D34.8 feet TG9B04 RB QApproximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop Qantenna driven element for 28.7 MHz? A8.75 feet B11.7 feet C23.4 feet D35 feet TG9B05 RC QApproximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop Qantenna driven element for 24.9 MHz? A10.99 feet B12.95 feet C13.45 feet D40.36 feet TG9B06 RC QApproximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop Qantenna reflector element for 14.1 MHz? A18.26 feet B23.76 feet C24.35 feet D73.05 feet DSmall loops normally have narrow bandwidths TG9B07 RA QWhich statement about two-element delta loops and quad antennas Qis true? AThey compare favorably with a three-element Yagi BThey perform poorly above HF CThey perform very well only at HF DThey are effective only when constructed using insulated wire TG9B08 '3BI-6.1 RC QCompared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation Qcharacteristics of a cubical-quad antenna? AThe quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but Aless directivity in the vertical plane BThe quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but Bmore directivity in the vertical plane CThe quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical Cplanes DThe quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical Dplanes TG9B09 RD QMoving the feed point of a multielement quad antenna from a side Qparallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will Qhave what effect? AIt will significantly increase the antenna feed-point Aimpedance BIt will significantly decrease the antenna feed-point Bimpedance CIt will change the antenna polarization from vertical to Chorizontal DIt will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to Dvertical TG9B10 RC QWhat does the term "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in Qreference to a delta-loop antenna? AThe number of directors versus the number of reflectors BThe relative position of the driven element with respect to Bthe reflectors and directors CThe power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to Cthe power radiated in exactly the opposite direction DThe power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to Dthe power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction TG9B11 RC QWhat is the "main lobe" of a delta-loop antenna radiation Qpattern? AThe direction of least radiation from an antenna BThe point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element CThe direction of maximum radiated field strength from the Cantenna DThe maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating Delement 'G9C Random wire antennas - physical dimensions, impedance TG9C01 RA QWhat type of multiband transmitting antenna does NOT require a Qfeed line? AA random-wire antenna BA triband Yagi antenna CA delta-loop antenna DA Beverage antenna TG9C02 RD QWhat is one advantage of using a random-wire antenna? AIt is more efficient than any other kind of antenna BIt will keep RF energy out of your station CIt doesn't need an impedance matching network DIt is a multiband antenna TG9C03 RB QWhat is one disadvantage of a random-wire antenna? AIt must be longer than 1 wavelength BYou may experience RF feedback in your station CIt usually produces vertically polarized radiation DYou must use an inverted-T matching network for multiband Doperation TG9C04 RD QWhat is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a Qground-plane antenna? AIt lowers the radiation angle BIt brings the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms CIt increases the radiation angle DIt brings the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms TG9C05 RB QWhat happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane Qantenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward- Qsloping? AIt decreases BIt increases CIt stays the same DIt approaches zero TG9C06 RA QWhat is the low-angle radiation pattern of an ideal Qhalf-wavelength dipole HF antenna installed parallel to the Qearth? AIt is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna BIt is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna CIt is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) DIt is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna, and one Dlarger lobe on the other side TG9C07 RB QHow does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) Qradiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna? AIf the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable BIf the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high, Breflected radio waves from the ground significantly distort the Bpattern CAntenna height has no effect on the pattern DIf the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high, Dradiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated TG9C08 RD QIf a slightly shorter parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength Qaway from an HF dipole antenna, what effect will this have on the Qantenna's radiation pattern? AThe radiation pattern will not be affected BA major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel Bto the two elements CA major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from Cthe ground DA major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, toward the Dparasitic element TG9C09 RB QIf a slightly longer parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength Qaway from an HF dipole antenna, what effect will this have on the Qantenna's radiation pattern? AThe radiation pattern will not be affected BA major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, away from Bthe parasitic element, toward the dipole CA major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from Cthe ground DA major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel Dto the two elements TG9C10 RB QWhere should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical Qantenna system be placed? AAs high as possible above the ground BOn the surface or buried a few inches below the ground CParallel to the antenna element DAt the top of the antenna TG9C11 RD QIf you are transmitting from a ground-mounted vertical antenna, Qwhich of the following is an important reason for people to Qstay away from it? ATo avoid skewing the radiation pattern BTo avoid changes to the antenna feed-point impedance CTo avoid excessive grid current DTo avoid exposure to RF radiation 'G9D Popular antenna feed lines - characteristic impedance and TG9D01 RA QWhat factors determine the characteristic impedance of a Qparallel-conductor antenna feed line? AThe distance between the centers of the conductors and the Aradius of the conductors BThe distance between the centers of the conductors and the Blength of the line CThe radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal DThe frequency of the signal and the length of the line TG9D02 RB QWhat is the typical characteristic impedance of coaxial cables Qused for antenna feed lines at amateur stations? A25 and 30 ohms B50 and 75 ohms C80 and 100 ohms D500 and 750 ohms TG9D03 RD QWhat is the characteristic impedance of flat-ribbon TV-type Qtwinlead? A50 ohms B75 ohms C100 ohms D300 ohms TG9D04 RC QWhat is the typical cause of power being reflected back down an Qantenna feed line? AOperating an antenna at its resonant frequency BUsing more transmitter power than the antenna can handle CA difference between feed-line impedance and antenna Cfeed-point impedance DFeeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line TG9D05 RD QWhat must be done to prevent standing waves of voltage and Qcurrent on an antenna feed line? AThe antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential BThe feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical Bquarter-wavelengths long CThe feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half- Cwavelengths long DThe antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the Dcharacteristic impedance of the feed line TG9D06 RC QIf a center-fed dipole antenna is fed by parallel-conductor feed Qline, how would an inductively coupled matching network be used Qbetween the two? AIt would not normally be used with parallel-conductor feed Alines BIt would be used to increase the SWR to an acceptable level CIt would be used to match the unbalanced transmitter output Cto the balanced parallel-conductor feed line DIt would be used at the antenna feed point to tune out the Dradiation resistance TG9D07 RA QIf a 160-meter signal and a 2-meter signal pass through the same Qcoaxial cable, how will the attenuation of the two signals Qcompare? AIt will be greater at 2 meters BIt will be less at 2 meters CIt will be the same at both frequencies DIt will depend on the emission type in use TG9D08 RD QIn what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed? ABels/1000 ft BdB/1000 ft CBels/100 ft DdB/100 ft TG9D09 RA QWhat standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a Q50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 200-ohm Qfeed-point impedance? A4:1 B1:4 C2:1 D1:2 TG9D10 RD QWhat standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a Q50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 10-ohm feed-point Qimpedance? A2:1 B50:1 C1:5 D5:1 TG9D11 RD QWhat standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a Q50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 50-ohm feed-point Qimpedance? A2:1 B50:50 C0:0 D1:1